This is a laughable statement. Let me address each point directly.
During the last election, 33% of Hispanics voted for the Republican party[1]. 44% of women voted Republican[2]. And "mostly lower to middle class"? I though the Republican's were the party of the rich? Who do the rich vote for then?
I strongly suggest you take a more open-minded approach to politics.
I invite you to read the article I posted before commenting next time.
I also invite you to understand that 33% in politics is a huge minority. 67% of Hispanics voting Democrat, in an election, make the Democrats the clear winner of that particular demographic.
Finally, the "rich" are the top 10%, or 1%, or even 0.1% based on what particular income inequality chart you're looking at, leaving the entire bottom >=90% available for the demographics I mentioned.
I said the Republican and Tea Parties are predominantly white male. When you show me that minority amounts of women and minorities voted Republican, it only reinforces my point that the Republican and Tea Party bases are predominantly white and male.
Statistically speaking, that's a 12 point spread - 44% and 56%. Indeed, that's huge in politics. Most modern Presidential elections are won with 52-53% of the popular vote at best. [0]
Hispanics, as you noted, are over a 30 point spread.
So politically speaking, having only 44% of the female vote and still winning requires a very large (political) majority of voters voting Republican to be male. Add to that age, and again we're seeing clearly that old white men are the key demographic. [1]
It's not that you and I see percentages differently. It's the political significance of the margins that define the argument.
It's a strange statement, but you don't refute it well. It's strange because "mostly-white" and "mostly-middle-to-lower-class" describe the electorate.
"During the last election, 33% of Hispanics voted for the Republican party"
What percentage of voters were Hispanic?
"Who do the rich vote for then?"
Statistically, it doesn't matter. There aren't that many of "the rich".
This is a laughable statement. Let me address each point directly.
During the last election, 33% of Hispanics voted for the Republican party[1]. 44% of women voted Republican[2]. And "mostly lower to middle class"? I though the Republican's were the party of the rich? Who do the rich vote for then?
I strongly suggest you take a more open-minded approach to politics.
[1]http://www.pewhispanic.org/2014/11/07/hispanic-voters-in-the... [2]http://townhall.com/tipsheet/katiepavlich/2014/10/22/poll-wo...